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In the Years 1925-37 Successive British Government Felt That Germany Had Legitimate Grievances and This Largely Explains the Policy of Appeasement. How Far Do You Agree with These Judgements?

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To an extent the question stated is quite an accurate reflection of the attitudes of many British politicians through the later half of the 1920's and the early part of 1930's. Many in the British government largely agreed that Germany had legitimate grievances, whether it was issues caused by the treaty of Versailles, or grievances over land disputes or economical problems. However there was also changing interest with British foreign policy and this was because of the difference in opinions between the likes of conservative and liberal governments. It is not fair to completely agree with as this statement as it was clear that after 1934 there were no legitimate grievances left and appeasement was largely implemented out of fear. For the most part though all actions taken by the British government were in the interest and benefit to Britain.

Through the 1920's and the early 1930's it was a universal view for British politicians that Germany had legitimate grievances that they should correct. Many of Germanys grievances during this time arose form certain terms from the treaty of Versailles. It became more and more apparent through the 1920's that some of the terms that came with the treaty of Versailles needed changing, many of these were seen to cause grievances for Germany. Issues such as reparations caused great stress on Germany, and these "legitimate grievances" were necessary to be corrected by Britain. It was clear the actions taken to supposedly cure these grievances were generally in the interest of Britain herself. For example an economically stronger Germany would prove a stronger trading partner for Britain.

Despite the legitimate Grievances Germany had in the 1920's and early 30's, it is clear that by 1934 Germany (and Hitler) had exhausted these grievances, and Appeasement was now driven by fear.

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